Hi. This is my first post here, but I've been following the theories of the Compendium avidly for ages now, so I'm not exactly "new" or anything...
Anyway. I've got one question: Why does everyone automatically assume that the End of Time is ALWAYS the time-space coordinates of least resistance?
When you get to the End of Time initially, Gasper says that because of the Conservation of Time Theorem, four or more travelers in a time warp will end up at the place of least resistance. He then indicates that the End of Time is such a place. Not only is that plausible, but it makes perfect sense at the time. But do the "time-space coordinates of least resistance" never change? Is that place always synonymous with the End of Time?
I was of the opinion that, given the set of circumstances, the place of least resistance turned out to be the End of Time. I've always just assumed that the particular place of least resistance was situation dependant; that if things had happened differently, the time-space coordinates might have been somewhere completely different.
As eveyone keeps refering to the End of Time exclusively as the time-space of least resistance, I'm starting to think I must have missed something. It makes some amount of sense that it would always be the End of Time and I've got no opposing theory to even attempt to prove it wrong. There's no evidence to support what I'm thinking at all, I know, but just because it may not be right, does that mean it's neccesarily wrong?
I guess what I'm trying to ask is this:
Is there any reason NOT to believe that at any given time, the time-space coordinates of least resistance may end up being Lucca's house in 1000 AD?
[PS: I've always thought that the reason the Time Crash brought Chronopolis to the Dead Sea was because in that specific situation, it was the time-space coordinates of least resistance. Is there anything to prove why that can't be a valid possibility?]