Do time travelers operate in Time Error?

[ZeaLitY]

This is the issue. http://www.chronocompendium.com/Forums/viewtopic.php?t=1291&start=30

We are assuming in that thread that the moment Marle steps back in time, history reflows to 1000 A.D. complete with the disastrous effect she's had on the world.

But do time travelers operate in their own Time Error? Consider this. Before facing Lavos, Crono bids farewell to Doan, and notes that he will go fight Lavos. Doan notes that it is 9:30 AM. Now, Crono goes back in time, and the presence of his light cone causes the future to be discarded. However, the change is presently so miniscule that for all intents and purposes, the ruined future is completely the same. Except for extremely, extremely slight abberations here and there, the ruined future is almost completely identical to its former counterpart. Now, in 1999 A.D., Crono takes 30 minutes to defeat Lavos; he succeeds, causing the ruined future to disappear and the happy future to exist.

But would the happy future come in as soon as Crono departed to 1999 A.D., or would it come in right when the time was 10:00 AM to Doan? That is, from the reference of points of time on a timeline, it is reasonable to assume that changes to the timeline are incurred on a system of Time Error?

As GrayLensman explained, even the very presence of a person in history will disturb the world subatomically at the very least, causing a new timeline to happen -- I'm not arguing against this. But from the scope of a person timing Crono's actions in the past, would the ruined future exist for 30 more minutes after his departure and THEN be cast to the Darkness Beyond Time upon Lavos's defeat? What are the ramafications of this on the Marle Paradox and the thread above (Telepod Paradox)?

If this is true, then history at the Fair would have started changing according to Marle's personal timeline in 600 A.D. There would probably be about 30 seconds of only slight, subatomic changes from her light-cone as she wondered where she was. The changes would then increase (exponentially?) as a search party found her after 30 seconds. Would this effectively give Crono a grace period to enter the Gate with Time Error and Marle's personal time as a time traveler considered?

If I am completely wrong, let me know. I don't think this is that crackpot "Temporal Inertia" theory, but please, I need more input, especially from the heavy hitter analysts here.

[GrayLensman]

This is the issue. http://www.chronocompendium.com/Forums/viewtopic.php?t=1291&start=30

We are assuming in that thread that the moment Marle steps back in time, history reflows to 1000 A.D. complete with the disastrous effect she's had on the world.

But do time travelers operate in their own Time Error? Consider this. Before facing Lavos, Crono bids farewell to Doan, and notes that he will go fight Lavos. Doan notes that it is 9:30 AM. Now, Crono goes back in time, and the presence of his light cone causes the future to be discarded. However, the change is presently so miniscule that for all intents and purposes, the ruined future is completely the same. Except for extremely, extremely slight abberations here and there, the ruined future is almost completely identical to its former counterpart. Now, in 1999 A.D., Crono takes 30 minutes to defeat Lavos; he succeeds, causing the ruined future to disappear and the happy future to exist.

But would the happy future come in as soon as Crono departed to 1999 A.D., or would it come in right when the time was 10:00 AM to Doan? That is, from the reference of points of time on a timeline, it is reasonable to assume that changes to the timeline are incurred on a system of Time Error?

You're not thinking relatively.  After Crono departs through the time warp, from his perspective, he won't kill Lavos for 30 minutes.  From Doan's perspective, Lavos was defeated 300 years minus 30 minutes ago.  The timeline already exists into the indefinite future.  Crono is changing history, but Doan doesn't have to wait for history to catch up to him, because from his perspective it already happened.

[SilentMartyr]

Wait, i am kinda confused with your example, ZeaLitY. Is Crono going straight from 2300 to 1999 or is he stopping somewhere else (not the EoT) inbetween?

[GrayLensman]

Zeality, if your thinking that there would be a rate of change of time in time-error (which is a good assumption), that would be, for example, the time Crono experiences travelling through a Gate.  From the original Doan's perspective, the time-line would never change, because he is not moving in time-error.  From Crono's perspective, he is in the "present:", and the new version of Doan will exist when Crono returns to 2300 AD.  An observer in the End of Time would be able to see Crono pass through the Time-Gate, and the time-line change simultaneously.

[ZeaLitY]

Yes, I lost perspective there for a moment.

[evirus]

im not sure by what you mean by temporal inertia.

ultimatly i would have to ask is there a true "present" time on the time line, meaning everything before present is predetermined? if that is the case then the only capability to change the future is through the beings existing in the present(what this has to do with the topic im not sure it just popped into my head)

at any case i prescribe to the idea that "it hasn't happened till it happened" in which i mean that chrono hasn't beaten lovas untill he actualy goes and and beats him. i say that your idea of a "grace period" is valid. plus we got to put things into prespective theres no wizards or psychics in guardia, it takes a while to call off a search party. there could have been several groups looking and one group would have been on the verge of finding something, but then get wind of the search being called off. this accounts for the ability for crono to talk to marle in the castle before she dissappears

[Sentenal]

Zeality, I think that theory sounds just about exactly like the same thing as the Temporal Inertia theory.  That Theory would also not explain Lucca's ability to travel to 600ad.