Dankun, thank you for taking the time for such a thorough response. Before I launch into a response to your response, please let me make sure I am clear on your points (makes no sense to address an issue if no one thinks it is an issue).
Thought, thank
you for taking the time to write such a thorough refutation to my already in-depth reply to your theory. And to answer your first question; yes, you understood all of my points perfectly, it seems.
That is a lot to respond to. I will try to do so in a concise and ordered manner, but I am afraid this is a friggenly huge post.
I'm afraid that it's only going to get worse with my current reply. But I will also try to do so in an orderly fashion, while trying to be as clear as possible on everything I say. I also apologize again for taking such a long time to even consider replying to your post. However, as you so adequately put: it was a HUGE post to reply to, and as such, not an easy challenge to take on.
Solution #1I reread the article and I must maintain that my original interpretation is correct and that, indeed, your take on it does not conform to the article that you linked to.
My understanding of Time Error does
not differ or contradict anything of what is already stated in the Compendium's current definition . The only thing that I suggested (that you misinterpreted) is that, instead of thinking of it as a separate mathematical equation from normal time; to simply view it as a sort of 'tracking' to a any given personal timeline, once that person has time traveled and effected changes to his life.
Think of it as a track record accessible to all time travelers, so that they can actually modify the things that they want changed. Also, so that they don't cause any time-traveling related problems like paradoxes and such.
The Principles of Time and Dimensional Travel article (which you linked to) states, under the Theories Section, Sub section Time Error (1.2.2), 1st bullet point, states “time portals within the standard time axis flow through time and Time-Error at equal rates.” An example is then given: “A time portal is created at time X and Time-Error 0. At time X+T, the Time-Error of the Portal is T.”
I stated the following: “Time Error, as I understand it, is that the specific instance a gate will open up into is its original period + the time error.”
I can find no significant divergence between my statement and the article’s in this instance. Mathematically, they are saying the same thing.
Yes, you are indeed correct. So far, everything you said about Time Error holds true under that definition. However, later on, you go on and add several other observations that actually twist the definition of Time Error and therefore make this statement a fallacy. You do all this, in order for you to try claiming that there is absolutely nothing wrong with your theory and that it effectively resolves the Guardia Royal Line Paradox. When in fact, the only thing that you manage to pull off up by doing this is contradict yourself. How? By stating two completely different things, and at the same time, holding them both to be true statements.
Now, correct me if I'm wrong, but isn't that what is actually called an incorrect foundation for a fact? Basically, you can't say something is true if what originated your 'thought' in the first place is an incorrect observation. Simple logic, that states that anything deduced in this manner automatically makes it a false observation and therefore not a valid argument for your theory. And I do believe that it indeed is your central argument for it, as you base everything else you say off from it. So, in consequence if it can be proven to be wrong time and time again, there should be no questions left as to the 'status' of your theory as a bogus one.
This does not match up with the article on time error. Going back to the example used in the article itself, “at time X+T, the Time-Error of the Portal is T.” To represent this a little more simply, we have a basic equation: X+T=I. Time X is the exact point in time at which the portal was originally created, the article clearly states that Time-Error is T, and I am proposing that Time Index is essentially I (the result of that equation). Time Index cannot be the same as Time Error since Time Index is Time Error+X.
You purposely misrepresented what that equation would really look like, so that you could actually differentiate what Time Index is from the definition of Time Error.
In the formulae that you propose you state the following: [TI]= X+T. Of which, TI is Time Index, X represents the timeline and T stands for the amount of Time spent added to the original timeline.
This is the part that
never gets justified with the rest of your explanations!
You did a very poor job on trying to validate your whole theory solely through this argument. Indeed, everything else you say is in direct opposition of what you’re trying to say here by trying to make them look as two different concepts.
Let's us take a look at the very same example you used, for the sake of argument.
In that example of the article, the formulae that can be deduced from it would actually look like this: (X)+(x+T) = X'. As explained by the article, x is the modified timeline, T is the amount of time spent during Time Error that needs to be added to said timeline, which in turn then needs to be added to X or the original Time at which the timeline started; and the result of that equation is X', which is a different location as to where the timeline initiated at which is also known as: TE (Time Error).
Now let's compare both formulas. Shall we?
[TI]=X+T & [TE]=(X)+(x+T)
Isn't that essentially the same exact formulae?
However, a more precise formulae can be created to correctly address all problems. Or at least, that actually explains what I was trying say in the first place. To calculate a Time Record (or 'track') the formulae for Time Error would have to be modified and it would then read as: TE = (X)+[R(x+T)]. Wherein: TE is Time Error. X is the original location at which a timeline is accessed and R (which is the result of x+T, representing the amount of time spent added to a personal time on that timeline) is the 'record' of the whole endeavor (what that traveler actually did to his timeline), kept by Time itself, the Entity, or whatever.
Furthermore, Time-Error is not a record of what a Time Traveler has done. To quote the article again, paragraph 1, sentence 2: “Time Error is the way time flows in places like the End of Time compared to the way it flows in the rest of the world.” Time Error represents time in a place, not for a person.
Not according to what the article currently says about Time Error, fair enough. However. I believe that the above explanation of what a time track/record actually is, does not contradict anything already stated by the Time Error theory, as opposed to your cheap, soundless theory which almost invalidates it.
A person can experience Time Error but only in a place that already has Time Error and only as the result of Time Error on a portal. Time Error is how time flows for portals and locations, not people.
Not entirely. That is, at least not when you consider other suggested possibilities, like how a Time Record can be applied to Time Error concept. A Time Record isn't just everything that a traveler will do while in reaches of places with a Time Error flow principle. It is a complete duplication of what the Time Error timeline would look like for every time traveler.
Thus, Time Error cannot be a record of what a Time Traveler has done. At best, it could be described as a record of a Time Traveler’s actions while in areas of Time Error, but not in normal time.
Apparently, it would seem that you didn't quite misunderstood what I was trying to say. However, as each person can be said as to having their own individual timeline, a record needs to be created for each and every one of them. Thus, exonerating the idea that the Time Error concept needs not only be applied to portals, places or locations.
That is really the heart of my argument; previously Time-Error was a concept that can only be applied to locations, I am proposing that a variation on that theory could also be applied to animate objects (aka, people like Chrono and Ayla). To be fair, I am not using Time Error exactly as expressed in that article either. I am using Time Error as the difference between one value and another (that is, the moment that Time Travel has been introduced into a specific section a timeline and any event that follows after). This value will always be equal to the article’s exact definition of Time Error, but I am applying it in a manner that wasn’t expressed by the article.
I'm afraid not. Not according to what I just pointed out. My initial critiques and observations are still very much valid. You didn't exactly differentiate much of anything! The only thing you did was change the nomenclature of what the result of the equation would have to be called.
To try to illustrate what I am proposing Time Index is, allow me to compare it to Time Error. If Time Error flows perpendicular to normal time, then Time Index potentially flows in (essentially) a scribble to normal time. It doubles back on itself, it skips ahead, it falls behind, etc. Despite this, Time Index still flows in a straight line; it is only in comparison to normal time that it takes an odd shape. Compared to Time Error it is also a straight line.
Hardly. A time'
line' wouldn't exactly be a line if it isn't straight, now would it? Is just doesn't make sense... at all! Think about it, you first claim that Time Index isn't really a line, more so than it is a scribble, but then you say "Time Index still flows in a straight line"! Now, I don't know about you, but if you can’t see that as a contradictory statement I honestly believe there must be something wrong with your head. Just listen to how that last sentence actually sounds like... or better yet, read this again and tell me that it actually rings logical to you:
Time Index represents the Time Traveler’s travels through time in chronological order, which do not necessarily match up with the chronological order of normal time. According to normal time, Chrono and Co enter 600 AD (Marle disappears in the teleporter accident), leave 600 AD (after rescuing her), leave 1000 AD (Marle disappears in the teleporter accident), enter 1000 AD (their successful return from saving Marle). According to Time Index, these events happen more along the lines of how the player sees them; Chrono and Co leave 1000 AD, enter 600 ad, leave 600ad, and enter 1000 ad. From the perspective of normal time, Chrono and Co arrived in 600 AD before they left in 1000 AD (specifically, they arrived 400 years before they left). From the perspective of Time Index, just before Marle steps onto the teleporter, 600 AD is actually in the future. Just after Chrono goes through and enters 600 AD, 1000 AD is then in the past.
...Preposterous, indeed.
Solution #2I actually quite agree that fate does not exist in the series and that one cannot determine the point in Ayla’s future that she will have children. However, my argument is actually drawing from the past in order to determine a hypothetical “when” for Ayla to have children. The specific “when” that I used (30) is just for the ease of discussion. Really, if we assume that Ayla is the ancestor of the Guardia line, and the Guardia line exists, then we know that Ayla must have had a child at time X. I merely assigned an arbitrary value to that variable, but we can leave it as a variable if you prefer. However, it is a variable because we don’t know it, not because it hasn’t happened.
Wrong again!
It isn't a variable
just because we don't know it, but
also as a result of not knowing when/how/where or whether or not it's even going to happen! Why? Because if it isn't assigned any value (as it should, cause there is no Fate in the Chronoverse), as a variable it should remain as such, simply for the reason that we don't know what the outcome is going to be if, and when is replaced by an actual value in the equation. Why should it matter then, that because of this the variable may be negated existence? Because that number can also be a negative value! Or maybe, if you prefer, simply one that's beyond her lifespan or even better, one that is actually just past the point in her life in which she can in fact, have those children!
I am not talking about fate, I am merely talking about the past. This is, again, at the heart of Time Index. In the original Lavos timeline, pre-time travel (the various timelines are illustrated in the following document: http://www.chronocompendium.com/images/wiki/b/b1/Timelines.png ) did have a child at time point X, which we know because the Guardia line does in fact exist in 1000 AD. She lived her life, she had her child, she made her choices resulting from freewill, and she died. By Time Index standards, however, ALL of the original, pre-time travel timeline is in the past. The timeline was that way, but something new happened; time travel was introduced. Ayla having a child can be treated as having already happened simply because it has already happened, in the pre-time travel timeline. When she joins up with Chrono and the others, even though having children is in her future, it is still in the past.
This is an assumption (and an incorrect one) made by you. As is demonstrated by the very same document that you provide, such point X is never mentioned in either Timeline. Ayla's exact role in the Lavos-timeline is ultimately unknown. We pretty much don't know
anything about this timeline. As a result, you
can't assume that she did, in fact, have children and was actually the one who started the Guardia Royal Line. Time Index is a crackpot theory that would only make sense in Yuji Hori's head, I'm afraid.
Time Travel is introduced into the timeline by the Entity. This doesn’t necessitate change (indeed, it can’t necessitate as that would be fate) but it allows for change to occur. These changes, however, cannot occur until they occur. Ayla having a child can’t change until it changes. Until a future for the future is established, the future is based on the past. It makes sense if one follows Time Index, but not normal time.
Says who? Only you and your ludicrous Time Index theory.
And since Time Index does not make
any sense at all whatsoever... Yeah, you're right, I guess this could make sense, if you’re crazy enough to believe all that nonsense.
To offer a different example: Chrono doesn’t defeat Lavos until he actually defeats him. Time Travel allows for this change, but it is a variable, it is potential. Until that change is made, Lavos remains undefeated, just as in the original pre-time travel timeline. Once Lavos is defeated, we have a new timeline. 2300 AD on the pre-time travel timeline, according to Time Index, is in the past compared to 12000 BC on the new, post time travel timeline.
Bad example. As this is even used for an explanation of what Time Error is. You are basically stating that Time Index and Time Error are, indeed, the exact very same thing. Hmm.. Now doesn't that completely invalidate what you had previously said about what Time Error and Time Index represent? Precisely.
Let me quote you again, so as to remind you of a little something you said earlier:
previously Time-Error was a concept that can only be applied to locations, I am proposing that a variation on that theory could also be applied to animate objects (aka, people like Chrono and Ayla). To be fair, I am not using Time Error exactly as expressed in that article either. I am using Time Error as the difference between one value and another...
See what I mean? If that is not a self-contradiction of your theory, I don't know what is! Thank you for proving my point, by using that example.
So to my original argument, in the original, pre-time travel timeline, Ayla had a child. Her travels in time allow for the possibility for that event to change. However, that event doesn’t change until it changes. This isn’t because she is fated to have a child; it is because she DID have a child in the past (even though the past is her future). At point X on the original pre-time travel Ayla had a child, thus in the post-time travel timeline point X cannot be changed until it is changed, and it can’t be changed until Ayla reaches point X. Even though point X is in the future for Ayla according to normal time, it is in the past for Ayla according to Time Index and it can’t be changed until that past (her future) is overwritten by her present (which from the game’s perspective will be in the future).
And now, what you're just basically doing is to claim that while Point X is not supposed to be determined with a value, it should only rather have a definite location point in her personal timeline that does
not actually move around that
much (read: not at all). Yeah, that makes sense. About as much sense as what you said when you assigned a specific value to the variable!
This isn’t to say that due to time travel she couldn’t have children later or earlier or not at all, just that the events that proceed from Point X can’t change until Point X itself changes, and that change can’t occur until Ayla reaches Point X.
This isn’t fate, this is how the timeline existed before time travel was introduced and how it remains to exist until changed.
The point of this paradox
is that due to time travel she can't be expected to either 'have children later or earlier or not at all'. Not that there somehow exists a specific point X which in some strange bizarre way isn't malleable to
anything else that can or could ever be modified in her own timeline. Think about it that way. Doesn't that sound ridiculous to you? Or at least on some level, as something that completely obliterates all known Principles of Time mechanisms currently known for this game?
Thus, I am not talking about a predetermined future for Ayla; rather I am talking about a post-established past that continues to exist until changed.
That cannot be ultimately changed, right? And only has the 'potential' to be changed?
Like I said... Yeah, this makes perfect sense.
Solution #3Now to address Problem 3, which is actually easier to respond to than anything yet. You are stating that having the entirety of a person’s life as it would be, from the moment before they are effected by time travel to the point that they would have died (and any subsequent effects that life would have had on history), pre-time travel, would create a major problem for the timeline. As you said, “just imagine what it would be like to keep tags on everything at every single moment in a time traveler's life just so that a major event can be kept in existence for that person's sake.” Well actually, it would be for time’s sake, not the person’s sake, and it would be so that all events, not just major event, remain in existence. They remain simply because they do not change until changed. Essentially, you are claiming that it would be a major problem to keep tabs of a bunch of stationary objects (things that currently aren’t changing). Yeah, that isn’t that difficult.
Not if you factor in the idea that
everyone has a
personal timeline (within the multiple 'dimensions' of the Chronoverse Timelines)! Which you have, personally, alluded to in your own theories. You're saying that it wouldn't only be done just for one person's but for all of Time's sake, but if your consider this fact what the word 'Time' is only referring to, is to Ayla's Time. In other words, her very own personal timeline. An argument based on a semantic difference of what a word could potentially mean is by no means a good one.
All you've done so far is evaded providing an answer to this question: How can her timeline (Ayla's) have any possibility of remaining in a constant state of 'flow', if and when all of her future events are indeterminate? Not a big enough problem for you? How about doing that very same thing, for
all events of
every time travelers' personal 'Time' that could ever show up in a given Timeline? What do you think would happen if that were true? Time would most definitely cease to flow! At least as far any of the Time Travelers’' is concerned. Talk about a
real Time's scar. And that's just to say the least of what could happen, as many other potential problems would definitely arise!
But I made the mistake of using the word “flux” when I should have said something more along the lines of “infused with potential.” The events in traveler’s Time Index beyond their point of departure remain exactly as they were until changed, the only difference now is that they have the potential to change (remember, by Time Index standards these events are in the past, not the future, and remain in the past until the present overwrites them to create a future).
Potential to change = No change at all! That is, at least, until another external force is made present in that person's life (which should be read as Fate). This may actually sound stupid to you, but, the potential to anything isn't really anything until it actually is! It's non-existent, it doesn't matter, it doesn't make any difference... because it isn't there! Or even if it would be there, it can go away just as easily!! I'm sorry, but that is just the way it is, and will continue to be so as long as
something (
anything) else is needed in order to help generate the actual change in that person/object/timeline.
To offer a real life example of the underlying principles: take a bowling ball from the 1st floor of a building to the roof. You just gave it a good amount of potential energy. The bowling ball is exactly the same, nothing changed about it, only in its relation to everything else; it now has potential. In the same way, Time Index events after a time traveler’s departure remain exactly the same, only with potential for change. As there is only a potential change, they are no more difficult to keep tabs on than before that potential was introduced.
And to help you understand what I'm saying, I will use the very same example you provided.
That bowling ball is still just going to sit there at that roof, no matter how much time passes. It will always be there sitting, waiting, doing absolutely nothing at all! Sure, it has potential to crack someone's head open. But will that eventually ever happen, unless something else causes this ball to fall down? I.e. the wind, some mischievous brat, whatever?
If you still find this to be a major problem, then I would recommend reading up on Schrodinger’s Cat and the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle. Given that at any moment most of the Universe exists in multiple states until observed (seemingly), it is really a small thing for a comparatively few moments of comparatively few people in just one out of countless worlds to be held in a state of “flux,” or potential.
I'm not the one who matters here; at least not as to what should even be considered a potential problem to your theory! What constitutes a problem to a theory can't be as simple as a different point of view of any given person. Problems exist because of the simple fact that when and if a legitimate question is raised that simply can't be answered without leaving any shadow of a doubt as to its validity as a theory.
Furthermore, while both of those theories have very little application to the real problem (the Guardia Royal Line Paradox) at hand, they have absolutely nothing to do with what is being discussed at the moment. And even if they did, they still would offer no solution whatsoever to this problem in particular, as they are in fact also just theories!
Solution #4Which “other concept” from Back to the Future is my theory equitable to?
I don't believe that it has an established concept or name, by which it can be easily distinguished from any other; or at least not in the sense of canon. But I think you know exactly as to what part I was referring to. There was a previous poster on this thread that summarized it pretty well.
Additionally, why does it matter?
It matters because, if indeed you were trying to adapt rules and time traveling mechanics from a different source you are faced with the problem of bending somewhat another concept or theory that has already been previously established by the medium that we are currently discussing (in this case, the Time Error Theory and part of Chrono Trigger's Time Traveling Mechanics and Principles).
At its heart, Time Index can be summarized as “things don’t change until they change.” Everything else I have said is just an explanation of that concept and how it (maybe?) makes sense. Indeed, the explanations themselves could be summarized by the phrase “The enemy’s gate is down,” a quote taken from the book Ender’s Game, which essentially means that when a frame of reference has been removed (gravity in the book, a set direction of time for the Chronoverse) and no other references are necessitated but a frame of reference is still needed in order to act, then one should choose the frame of reference that best suits the situation. The GRL Paradox is avoided by the future happening in the past, a different frame of reference than has yet been suggested.
No it
can't. It
doesn't. I believe I have demonstrated to you enough that this really is NOT the case! And apparently, perhaps it was a different source altogether, which gave you this idea. My mistake. It's still a valid point though, even if I 'thought' that the source was originally a different one.
Solution #5Problem 5 is easier to address than problem 3. As I have laid things out, Robo’s personal Time Index is messed up at the end of the game. All the events left over from the original, pre-time travel timeline, from between 2300 and 2700, have been rewritten. You find this to be a problem.
Ha! Again with this?
I find it to be a problem?.... Yeah right, as if that matters as to what constitutes a problem.
Not at all! This is a
real problem that still needs to be addressed, just as much as all the other ones, before your theory can even be considered a valid one.
Okay, I admit that perhaps I exaggerated a bit as to this problem's status as the
biggest problem of your theory. There are many other
bigger problems, which have (curiously in descending order) already been listed; and that, as of yet, not
one of them has been successfully solved.
Unfortunately for you, as will be shown, Problem #5
still poses a
pretty big problem to your theory! Indeed, the very fact that you can't even see it as a problem doesn't help your theory at all... and it questions your logical reasoning, even further.
Now, allow me to quote the core issue of this problem, so as to not to repeat myself:
As per what your theory states, everything that he actually did from year 2300 to 2700 AD would have to be rewritten. Unfortunately this would also include all the events that took place during Chrono Cross. Meaning no 'Prometheus Circuit', and therefore no designation of Serge as 'Arbiter' of Time. Quite a big problem it poses, wouldn't you say?
As such it would seem that the timeline proceeding from the point that an individual leaves their timeline and the point in which they would have naturally died (if they hadn't time traveled) must be in a state of flux until such a point as the specific Time Index of the time traveler matches the Time Index of the event. Only then can the event’s flux be resolved into a definite outcome. So, for every second Ayla is trekking through time, the timeline is actually being re-written with Ayla being missing from her own era for that one extra second.
Let it be noted than, that you are indeed claiming that the Robo whose Time Index should
have to be rewritten, would be the one who stays behind to fix Fiona's Forest. Therefore, as one who has actually time traveled, in as much as for he stays there as long as he does, should have his personal Time Index be rewritten accordingly to his new actions in the Middle Ages, for all of the 400 years that correspond to his own time period; that is from 2300 AD to 2700 AD.
So what does this all mean, exactly? It means that
this Robo, has very much so, time traveled before (and with the Team, as well) and is not the 'original-timeline' Robo that you so conveniently claim wouldn't have this problem because of never having time-traveled before.
Now, it is true that once he returns to the future, all time traveling methods become unavailable to him, as all the gates are closed to him after that point. However, this by
no means equals to, having his old 'Time Index' not be overwritten by a new different one. Remember, this is only as per what your theory states, as all of the 'rewriting' actually takes place during the time in which they remain time traveling (in this case the 400 years he spent in the Middle Ages).
Now, allow me to quote yourself, so as to establish what your theory has previously stated in this regard:
As most characters aren’t gone from their timeline long enough to really miss out on any major events, the GRL Paradox doesn’t manifest. There is only one exception to this; Robo. He “travels” through time for more than 400 years. Thus, any event that the original-timeline Robo did from 2300 AD to 2700 AD would be erased. Alas, Crono and the gang never travel so far into the future in order to test this theory. As Robo is back in 2300 by the end of the game, presumably all the events in his life from 2300 to 2700 would be changed to have a new Time Index.
The 'original-time-line' Robo is the
only one that doesn't time travel. He has
nothing to do with this problem! So why don't you just leave him alone gathering up dust at Proto Dome, where he belongs? You also seem to believe, for whatever reason, that once he goes back to 2300 AD at the end of the game, everything that he did should return to normal; his whole time traveling experience should go up in smokes, as if it never even happened. Do you even know how
absurd that is? It's almost as moronic as saying that he wasn't in fact, time traveling at that very instant in order to get to his own time period!
This is quite easy because the posed problem is coming from a misunderstanding. Everything he did from 2300 to 2700 on the original, pre-time travel timeline would have to be rewritten. Chrono Cross, however, does not take place on that timeline. Any rewriting of Robo’s history resulting from the Time Index theory would have been re-rewritten due to the successful defeat of Lavos and the saving of the future. Thus, the Prometheus circuit would have no problem existing because even though Robo’s 2700 is being rewritten, as that is in the past when compared to the Prometheus Circuit in 2400, via Time Index.
I'm afraid that the only misunderstanding here came from your end.
I
never said that Cross took place in the exact same timeline that Trigger did. You, however, did misinterpreted almost
every single event in which Robo actually travels through time. That is, in as much to say, because you actually claimed that Keystone-T1 Robo had never time traveled before or that in some mysterious way, it would be just as if he never did by the end of the game, just so that you could validate your own theory. This of course is wrong; not just for the reason that only the Robo from the original-timeline (the one in which Crono never interferes because there aren't any time gates, called the Lavos-timeline) never actually time travels (just like Crono), but also because it is impossible to even consider that after Lavos is destroyed all other time related side-effects would simply disappear (especially considering Chrono Cross' revealing plot).
Solution #6And finally, because I haven’t written a long enough response, allow me to address the 6th problem. The Entity did it argument essentially states that an outside force prevents the GRL Paradox from happening. Time Index, however, essentially states that the [GRL Paradox doesn’t need to be prevented since the events that could trigger such a thing haven’t occurred. Such events might occur in the future (from a Time Index POV), but nothing in the game necessitates that they have or will occur. If my theory is valid, it doesn’t circumvent the problems presented by the Entity Did It argument, it fully stops before we get to an “it” that the Entity may or may not have done.
Finally, you're right! Only because this isn't nearly long enough yet! Yeah right.... I think I may have reasoning problems myself.
Except that only everything about common sense would necessitate such events from actually occurring! Otherwise what you are indeed claiming is that random things can actually happen as a predetermined occurrence... and that things don't need to change at all because all they need is to have the potential for it, and thus don't actually need to be random at all!
And this is where you leave Occam's Razor Principle to rest, I believe.
Occam’s Razor is happy because the theory really is quite simple; things don’t change until they change (and nothing has changed to cause the GRL Paradox, so the GRL paradox hasn’t happened).
No. Occam's Razor will never be 'happy', as long as all of this problems aren't completely solved in this particular theory.
And with that said, I declare this the
biggest post the Chrono Compendium's Forum has ever seen!!!