No, I understand that. What I don't understand, however, are phrases such as "the elimenanted [sic] future disappears the very moment a change occurs." If the future disappears at the moment of time travel, how can the future be said to ever have existed? Let me construct an example.
Suppose we have a timeline from 10,000 B.C. to 10,000 A.D. Let's further suppose that at 2000 A.D., someone travels into the past. According to both your statement and the TB theorem, all events from 2000 A.D. to 10,000 A.D. will be sent to the DBT. My concern is this: they never happened! How were they recorded in the first place?
I want to stress that I don't wish to attack your statement so much as I wish to understand it. I have read all of the CC posts and articles on time travel and I think they suffer from the same problem; they all implicitly treat a timeline as something existing within time.
Would it be worth my time to construct a detailed essay (including axioms and corollaries) on time travel as it relates to the Chronoverse? Before going to sleep every night for the last week, I have been formulating an elegent, all-encompassing theory. Do you think it would be warmly welcomed by the Chrono Compendium community? Or, rather, would most people here spend their time trying to refute my ideas? I'd like to know, you know, so I don't waste my time.
~ Sir Frog (aka dacb1984)